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Discussion in 'PMP' started by Shauvik Das, Sep 15, 2020.
Your answer is correct.
The Simplilearn answer B is not correct and the explanation does not match with what is stated in the question.
Simplilearn TA can you please check and confirm this?
Yes. We have an overage as described in the context, so final fee will be the target fee with the seller's share of the overage.